Just a quick contemplation related to yesterday’s post about Christ given the authority to forgive sins on earth. Remember. Every instant that the Lord Jesus Christ healed PALSY it was told to all that witnessed the miracle that He had that authority to forgive sins. Matthew 9:1-6; Mark 2:1-10; Luke 5:18:26
PALSY – 4166 παραλυτικός (paralytikos), ή (ē), όν (on): adj. [see παραλυτικός (paralytikos), οῦ (ou), ὁ (ho), just below]; ≡ Str 3885—LN 23.171 paralyzed (Mt 4:24; 8:6+ note: others see these verses as the next lexical entry)
παραλυτικός (paralytikos), οῦ (ou), ὁ (ho): n.masc. [served by 4166]; ≡ Str 3885—a paralytic, a lame person (Mt 9:2, 6; Mk 2:3–5, 9, 10+; Lk 5:24 v.r. NA26; Jn 5:3 v.r. NA26); not in LN
Swanson, James. 1997. In Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Greek (New Testament), electronic ed. Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems, Inc.
1. Does that mean that if the paralyzed and the lame are healed with the miraculous moving of God that the healer would announce immediately that the healing was done to show that the Lord Jesus Christ had power to forgive sins on earth?
2. Does that mean in those rare cases that the healing of paralysis, lameness, and palsy takes place through a healer at the moving of God, that the crippled are in terrible sin before they are healed?
3. Does that mean that all these EVENTS that we see take place in revival-like settings where crippled people throw away their wheelchairs and crutches without the official announcement of Christ’s power to forgive sins might be fake?
4. Does that mean that we as Christians, fail to uphold our knowledge of Scripture, by allowing FAKERS to pretend to heal without challenging that practice? Do we justify this wrongly to ourselves by saying at least God is being credited with the pretend miracles?
What do you think?
